Friday, March 22, 2013

How to Shine in GRE entrance exam and Some Free GRE test Sample Questions for 2013

Free GRE test Sample Questions for 2013

After the success of my blogs on Wonderlic Test Sample Questions, Auditing jobs, Administrative Jobs question and Accounting Jobs, now I want to create this blog for readers to do well in GRE test. In my first GRE test blog you will learn little bit about the test and in my other coming blogs you will see some practice sample questions.

What is GRE test?

This means Graduate Record Examination (GRE)
This test is produced and administered by the Educational Testing Service (ETS). This is an exam that is used by applicants to graduate school, and it serves as a common measure for the applicants. There are two types of Graduate Record Examinations, the general exam and the subject tests. The general GRE test is often required for admission to graduate school, and the subject tests, which are only given in a few select subjects, can be either optional or required depending on the graduate program. This description will focus on the general GRE test only.

How to Register?

There are three ways to register for the Graduate Record Examination
1. Registration can be completed online on the website for the Educational Testing Service,
2. on the phone by calling 1-800-GRE-CALL, or
3. by mail using the application found in the GRE test bulletin (the bulletin can be found online at the ETS website).
If registration is completed by phone or online, a registration confirmation number will be given. If registering by mail, an Authorization Voucher Request Form, found in the GRE test bulletin, will need to be downloaded and printed and mailed in to the address found in the bulleting. A voucher will be sent back to the registrant within four weeks, and at this point, the registrant is to call ETS to schedule a testing appointment. Specific details concerning registration and the information needed, as well as the requirements for taking the test, can be found in the GRE test bulletin. When registering, by phone, online, or by mail, all necessary fees must be paid. Detailed fee schedules can also be found in the GRE test bulletin.

Test in USA

In the United States, the GRE test is given year round at selected testing centers. The test is administered on computer only. Locations at which the GRE test may be taken can be found on the ETS website. The computerized GRE test is composed of three different content areas, verbal, quantitative, and analytical writing. The verbal section tests the ability to evaluate and analyze written material, the ability to synthesize information from said material, the ability to understand relationships between words and concepts, and the ability to analyze the relationships between parts of sentences. The quantitative section tests the ability reason in a quantitative manner, the ability to solve quantitative problems, and ones' understanding of arithmetic, algebra, geometry, and data analysis. The analytical writing section tests the ability to articulate complex ideas, the ability to understand and examine claims and evidence, the ability to support ideas and thoughts with necessary and applicable examples and reasons, the ability to write a focused and coherent essay, and the ability to understand and use standard written English.

How the GRE test works?

The computerized GRE test is made up of three sections, verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, and analytical writing. The analytical writing section is always first on the exam and is composed of two different tasks. The first task is an issue task, in which the test-taker has a choice of two topics. The second task is an argument task, in which the test-taker must complete the one task given. Test-takers are given up to 45 minutes to complete the issue task and up to 30 minutes to complete the argument task. The verbal and quantitative sections are composed of multiple choice questions (30 in the verbal section and 28 in the quantitative section) and may appear in any order in the exam. Thirty minutes are given to complete the verbal section, and 45 minutes are given to complete the quantitative section. The computerized GRE test may also contain a pretest section. This section will be unidentified as such, and it may appear in any position during the test (after the analytical writing section). This section is not counted as part of the GRE test score. Also, a research section may appear. This section will be identified as the research section, and if it appears, it will be the final section of the test. This section also is not counted as part of the GRE test score. The amount of questions and the time to complete the pretest and the research sections will vary.
The GRE test is scored in two ways. First, the verbal and quantitative sections are part of a computer adaptive test. This means that the questions that are given to the test-taker are dependent partially on the answers the test-taker has provided to previous questions. The number of questions answered correctly in each of these sections is what is called the raw score. The raw score is then converted to a scaled score. This scaled score takes into account the differing levels of difficulty among different versions of the test. The scaled scores for the verbal and quantitative sections range from 200 to 800, in 10 point increments. The analytical writing section is hand scored by two trained readers. The readers will give the essay responses scores on a holistic scale from 0-6. If the scores given in this section by the two readers vary by more than one point, a third reader scores this section. If the scores do not vary by more than one point among the two initial readers, the scores are averaged and rounded.

 Free Printable GRE test Sample Questions 1-24

Each underlined section corresponds to an answer choice. The first underlined section corresponds to choice A, the second to choice B, and so on. Please select the answer choice that either contains an error or select choice E which is "No error."
1. Her novel is an American classic about a young girl who she called Billie Joe. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
2. Hours of driving laid ahead of us before we could complete the trip. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. B
D. D
E. E
3. Both Thoreau and Emerson were abolitionists; they had spoken out against the evils of slavery. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
4. Yesterday our classroom computer was acting rather strangely. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
5. We decided against medical careers because science had always given Sue and I trouble. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
6. After a whole afternoon of playing basketball, I sleep very sound at night. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
7. In the winter I usually like skiing and to skate. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
8. The judge showed early signs of genius; for example, she began law school when she was only 19 years old. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
9. The general greeted his former mess sergeant, whom he had not seen in many years. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
10. Lately, many of the committee's suggestions has been rejected. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

______________________________________________

Answers and Explanations Free Printable GRE test Sample Questions 1-24

1. C: "Whom" is the correct form for an indirect object, not "who," which is only
 used as a subject.
2. A: The correct past tense of "to lie" is "lay." "Laid" is only the past tense of the transitive verb form, i.e. one that takes a direct object, e.g. "She laid the book on the table."
3. E: This sentence is correct as it is written.
4. E: This sentence is correct as it is written.
5. D: "Sue and I" is incorrect as a direct object and would only be correct as a subject, e.g. "Sue and I had always had trouble with science." As an object, one would not write "Science had always given I trouble" but "Science had always given me trouble." Therefore, it should also be "Sue and me."
6. D: The correct adverb (telling how) to modify the verb "sleep" is "soundly." "Sound" is an adjective and would only modify a noun, e.g. "Sound sleep is important to your health."
7. D: Both verbal direct objects modifying the same verb ("like") should agree. Since the gerund "skiing" comes first in this sentence, it should be followed by "and skating." (If one prefers the infinitive form, seen in this sentence's second object, then both should match: "…I usually like to ski and to skate.") Mixing forms causes disagreement.
8. E: This sentence is correct as it is written.
9. E: This sentence is correct as it is written.
10. C: The plural noun "many" (suggestions) requires the plural auxiliary verb "have" rather than the singular "has" with "been rejected."
11. C: "Justices'" is used here as a noun, not a name/title/proper noun (e.g. "Justice Kagan"), and so should not be capitalized.
12. C: The verb should be "are," not "is", in order to agree with the plural pronoun "they."
13. A: The correct present perfect tense of the intransitive verb "to lie" is "have lain," not "have laid." The latter is only correct when transitive, i.e. taking an object, e.g. "We have always laid these books on this table."
14. C: The correct adverb to modify the verb "leave" is "quickly." "Quick" is an adjective and can only modify a noun, e.g. "You had better make a quick trip home if you want to avoid the storm."
15. D: The correct spelling for this meaning is "illusion," meaning a false or deceptive appearance. "Allusion" is a different word meaning an indirect reference, e.g. "The poem's use of threes is an allusion to the trinity."
16. A: The word "infer" is incorrectly substituted here for "imply." Mr. Smith would imply, i.e. hint or suggest in what he said; his students would infer, i.e. deduce from or read into what he said.
17. E: This sentence is correct as it is written.
18. D: There should be a comma between "luckily" and "I copied…" "Luckily" is an introductory word here for the second of two independent clauses. Introductory words like "however," "therefore," "fortunately," etc. should be followed by commas.
19. B: "Amount" is used with mass, collective, or non-count nouns, e.g. a large amount of water. In this sentence, "representatives" is a plural count noun, so it should read "…the total number of representatives…" rather than "amount."
20. D: "Etc." is the standard abbreviation for the Latin phrase "et cetera" (translated from Greek), which means literally "and the rest." Since "et" means "and," to say or write "and etc." is redundant, i.e. saying "and" twice.
21. B: The verb must be the singular "concerns" to agree with the subject "clean air." The plural nouns "clean lakes and rivers" are introduced by the prepositional phrase "as well as" and are part of this phrase, which modifies the subject. The predicate (verb) agrees with the subject, not its modifier. Only if "and" were substituted for "as well as" would the predicate be plural.
22. E: This sentence is correct as it is written.
23. E: This sentence is correct as it is written.
24. D: The correct personal pronoun here should be "me" as a direct object rather than "myself." The latter is a special object (direct or indirect), used only reflexively, i.e. "I introduced myself to the class." The committee cannot audition "myself." Only I can audition myself; you can audition yourself; they can audition themselves, etc.
 
11. The Supreme Court decision, along with discussions of the Justices' opinions are printed in today's newspaper. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
12. Neither Sue nor Carol thinks they is ready to write the final draft. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
13. These notebooks have laid on the desk all week; please put them away. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
14. You had better leave for home quick if you want to avoid the storm. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
15. Monet used short brush strokes to create the allusion of moving water. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
16. Did Mr. Smith infer that our research paper had to be about an American author? No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
17. A spoonerism is a slip of a tongue in which the beginning sounds of two words are switched. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
18. Being that I was sick, I missed a whole week of classes; luckily I copied all the lecture notes from Linda. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
19. In 1912 Congress set a limit on the total amount of representatives in the House of Representatives. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
20. In science class we learned about digestion, respiration, circulation, and etc. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
21. Clean air, as well as clean lakes and rivers, concern all of the citizens of the United States. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
22. A school handbook is given to everyone who enrolls in our school. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
23. Yes, records and compact discs have the same sound in my opinion. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
24. Today the talent committee will audition Joe, Steve, and myself. No error.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

Wednesday, March 20, 2013

Free Printable General Competency Test (GCT) sample Questions 1-100 (Govt. Jobs)

GCT test for Govt. Jobs and Free Test samples for 2013


This is 4rth part of blog on General Competency Test (GCT) sample Questions. This test is used federal Public Service is for the best-qualified persons to fill the jobs available. Employment tests like the GCT help to satisfy both of these aims by providing a fair, objective and reliable measure of an important qualification.

GCT test for Govt. Jobs and Free Test samples 36-50

Question 36
Using shorthand, a stenographer can take down a 150-word letter in one minute, making only one error. Typing takes the person twice as long as writing shorthand and results in twice as many errors. How long would it take the person to type a letter consisting of 300 words, and how many errors would be made?

1.2 minutes, 2 errors
2.4 minutes, 2 errors
3.4 minutes, 4 errors
4.6 minutes, 4 errors
 
Question 37
You are responsible for applying parole regulations. According to the regulations, only an inmate who is sentenced to 15 years or less in prison and has not had more than three warnings of misconduct during detention may be paroled. You have two files to review. Inmate A was sentenced to 16 years in prison and had one warning of misconduct, while inmate B was sentenced to 15 years in prison and had three warnings of misconduct.

Who may be paroled?

1.inmate A
2.inmate B
3.inmate A and inmate B
4.neither inmate A nor inmate B

Question 38
You find the following article in an administrative manual on applying employment legislation:

The Personnel Services Directorate is responsible for informing and assisting the manager in interpreting and applying legislation to see that all benefits, terms and conditions of employment are administered by the prescribed deadlines, according to the legislative processes established in code 131-HB.
 
This text says that:

1. Deadlines and legislative processes must be established according to code 131-HB
2. All benefits, terms and conditions of employment are applied by the Personnel Services Directorate
3. The Personnel Services Directorate is responsible for helping to apply employment legislation
4. The manager will establish code 131-HB, with terms and conditions of employment being met
Question 39
A director is hiring a new assistant, and your job is to schedule interviews for the job candidates. Each interview takes 30 minutes to conduct, and a 15-minute period for the completion of all necessary evaluation forms is needed after each interview to evaluate the candidate. There are ten candidates applying for the position, and there are two interviewers who will each interview half of the candidates.

At what time will the interviewers finish if they begin at 9:00 a.m., assuming no lunch break or coffee break is taken?

1.12:30 p.m.
2.12:45 p.m.
3.1:30 p.m.
4.2:15 p.m.

________________________________________________________

Answers for General Competency Test Level 1 (GCT1) Practice Test 36-50

Q36 - 3
Q37 - 2
Q38 - 3
Q39 - 2
Q 40 - 4
Q 41 - 3
Q 42 - 2
Q 43 - 1
Q 44 - 2
Q 45 - 3
Q 46 - 4
Q 47 - 3
Q 48 - 2
Q 49 - 3
Q50 - 4
 
________________________________________________________

Question 40
As an accounting clerk, you are required to correct errors made in payroll documents. The steps required to carry out this task are listed below (in the wrong order):

A. Report alterations to senior clerk.
B. Locate incorrect figures in documents.
C. Correct the detected errors.
D. Obtain documents in question.
Which of the following is the best order for these steps?

1. B, C, D, A
2. D, A, B, C
3. D, B, A, C
4. D, B, C, A

Question 41
Your unit's classification clerk must be consulted in order to send a file containing classified and indexed information to another division. The clerk will check the information or correspondence. If there are any errors, the clerk will point them out to the supervisor, which will delay sending the file. After checking again, it is up to the clerk and not the supervisor to code and number files.

This description provides information on the processes involved in:

1. Organizing files
2. Coding files
3. Sending files
4. Indexing files

Question 42
Your department makes several long-distance phone calls each month. Assume that you have the following arrangement with the phone company:
Individual phone calls costing less than $12 are to be paid in full.
For more expensive phone calls, you are billed only for the amount that exceeds $25, or you are billed at a flat rate of $12, whichever is the larger of the two amounts.
The following phone calls were made this month:
1. phone call number one $10
2. Phone call number two $55
3. Phone call number three $75
4. Phone call number four $40
Based on the above information, how much will you be charged for the month?
1. $97
2. $105
3. $107
4. $180
Question 43
Government     Gouvernement
of Canada      du Canada

MEMORANDUM     NOTE DE SERVICE
____________________________________________________
 
The annual report will be divided into three chapters entitled Finance, Responsibilities, and Evaluation, numbered from 1 to 3 in that order. These three chapters will each be divided into six subchapters, each covering two months of the year and numbered from 1 to 6. These subchapters will each be divided into three sections entitled Management, Officers, and Administrative Support and numbered from 1 to 3 in that order.
According to this memorandum, chapter 3, subchapter 4, section 1 would pertain to:
1. Evaluation, July-August, Management
2. Finance, July-August, Administrative Support
3. Evaluation, July-August, Officers
4. Finance, June-July, Officers

Question 44
Your job involves checking reports to determine if written errors have been made. The reports that you check are equal in length and difficulty, and come from three different writers. After checking all reports, you note that all reports written by Writer A contain errors, some reports written by Writer B contain errors and the reports written by Writer C do not contain any errors
What conclusion can be justified based on these findings?

1. Writer "A" lacks experience
2. Writer "C" has the lowest error rate
3. The writers do not have the same number of years of experience
4. Writer "C" takes the most time to write reports

Question 45
Government     Gouvernement
of Canada      du Canada
MEMORANDUM     NOTE DE SERVICE
____________________________________________________
TO: Telegram Clerk
FROM: Director, Communications Centre
I remind you that all "not protected" telegrams received from overseas must first be classified by country of origin and then by date of receipt, with the most recent telegrams appearing first in the general index. However, overseas telegrams classified "protected" must be kept in a separate file and classified first according to sender's department and then by date of receipt. Of course, all "protected" telegrams must be handled with the greatest discretion. According to this memorandum, which of the following is true?

1. Telegrams must first be classified by country of origin and then separated depending on whether or not they are "protected"
2."Protected" telegrams are seldom received from different countries
3."Protected" telegrams are filed according to a different system than "not protected" telegrams
4."Protected" and "not protected" telegrams must be classified by date of receipt and by the department of the sender

Question 46
You are a personnel assistant responsible for assigning employees to small-group language training sessions. Several employees took part in a small-group language training course to increase their proficiency in using the correct work-related terms in the work environment.

A survey taken after training revealed that employees who underwent small-group language training sessions were more effective in their interactions with the public. It can be concluded from this survey that:

1. You are doing your job well
2. Employees who deal with the public must undergo language training sessions
3. Small-group language training sessions are the most effective means of increasing language proficiency
4. Employees who have undergone small-group language training sessions are better able to deal with the public

Question 47
You found the following paragraph on account auditing in an administrative manual:

Interest will automatically be paid to the contractor on accounts not paid within 30 calendar days after the due date. As established in the "Terms of payment", the due date is 60 days after the contract completion date.

According to this paragraph, interest will be due:

1.30 days after the contract completion date
2.60 days after the contract completion date
3.90 days after the contract completion date
4.120 days after the contract completion date

Question 48
A court reporter operates an electronic typewriter at 60 words per minute and a word processor at 70 words per minute. When using a typewriter, the reporter makes errors in 2 % of the words, and when using a word processor, the reporter makes errors in 1 %. What is the difference in number of errors made per hour on the two machines?

1.12
2.30
3.42
4.72
Question 49
Twenty percent of your work now involves clerical duties, whereas these duties took 30 % of your time two years ago. However, the 20 % of your time spent on writing the quarterly report two years ago has now increased to 25 %. You also note that 25 % of your time is spent classifying files, as it was two years ago.

What conclusion(s) can be justified based on these findings?

1. The time you spend classifying files has remained the same
2. The time you spend on clerical duties has decreased
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 50
Government       Gouvernement
of Canada           du Canada

MEMORANDUM     NOTE DE SERVICE
____________________________________________________

TO: All employees

FROM: Computer Services

As you know, we are in the process of buying 15 personal computers and will be installing them as soon as a distribution plan has been established. Each computer will be accompanied by new software (computer programs) which everyone will be required to use. Training programs for the new software will be offered during the next two weeks by the human resources unit. The main purpose of this memo is to:

1. Announce that 15 new computers may be purchased
2. Inform employees of the distribution plan
3. Schedule employees for training sessions
4. Inform employees that they will need to learn the new software

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